...unless the set \(A\) has a point and \(B\) has none...
Solution.
So \(A \mathrel{\vcenter{\huge \triangleleft} \!\!\!\! \vcenter{\tiny \rightarrow}} B\) means that there exists some map \(A \xrightarrow{f} B\text{.}\) In the category of sets, we know that the number of possible maps from \(A \longrightarrow B\) is related to the size of the sets by a formula we arrived at in Session 2: \({|B|}^{|A|}\text{.}\) The only time when this expression for number of maps evaluates to 0 is when \(|B| = 0\) and \(|A| > 0\text{.}\)
Another way of looking at this might to consider the contrapositive of this statement. If we know that there does not exist a map from \(A\) to \(B\text{,}\) that means there must be some origin point in \(A\) for the map to act on but no destination point in \(B\) to send it to. Not having a place to send the point to directly implies \(B=\emptyset\text{.}\) If we also had \(A =\emptyset\) then we’d have a "null map", so the non-existance of a map also implies \(A\) must be non-empty.